Fire Support Team (FiST) MQF Skill Level 3 (SL3) Certification Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• True or False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which radar zone allows a commander to closely monitor enemy territory for weapon detection?
• Which branch of the military is the Battlefield Coordination Line specific to?
• What type of support relationship is assigned to reinforce a similar-type unit?
• What is characterized as a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets?
• What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?
• What brevity term indicates sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• If full BDA is not possible, what should be passed at a minimum?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
• Which element is typically located with the joint fires element at the JSOTF?
• What is the main function of the Fires and Effects Coordination Center (FECC)?
• What is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action?
• Which support relationship provides assistance to the supported force as a whole?
• A high payoff target generally has what implication for operational success?
• What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
• What is the step that follows “CAS Aircraft Check-In” in the CAS execution template?
• Do Army Attack Aviation engagements require terminal attack control?
• What term refers to an operation aimed at defeating an enemy attack while economizing forces?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?
• What term is used for an attack or feint that draws the enemy's attention away from the principal operation?
• True or False: For successful JFO employment, it is imperative that the JTAC and JFO participate in the planning process.
• What facilitates the efficient use of airspace for operations while safeguarding friendly forces?
• What phrase must be stated to maintain positive control during an engagement with the SOF Gunship?
• True or False: The phrase 'danger close' requires additional information to be passed to attacking aircraft.
• Which type of support involves responding directly to requests from the supported force?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a method for achieving responsive fires?
• What type of zone is designed to restrict radar acquisition around friendly systems?
• What can JTACs and FAC(A)s utilize to develop targeting data and provide terminal guidance operations?
• What methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• What is established by a commander to coordinate all fires within an area of operation?
• What does the Call for Fire zone represent in radar operations?
• In the CAS execution template, what does BDA stand for?
• Which NSFS brevity term summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• What is the purpose of a kill box in military operations?
• During joint operations, what is crucial to avoid fratricide?
• What term describes unintentional injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets?
• What brevity term signifies a FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• What area does a commander designate for searching and attacking hostile firing systems?
• True or False: Aircrew and commanders refer to the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures apply, regardless of friendly force posture.
• What term indicates that a joint terminal attack controller grants weapons release clearance to an aircraft to attack a target?
• What is the circular error for Category II TLE, measured in feet and meters?
• What brevity term signifies acquisition of laser designation or indicates that the platform is laser spot tracker capable?
• Which element provides advice to ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations?
• Which entity handles immediate air support requests and coordinates CAS sorties?
• What does the letter "F" in the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?
• Which of the following is NOT included in a BDA report according to the SALTR format?
• What measure allows for the integration of air-to-surface lethal attacks?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• What brevity term indicates that an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• What type of identification is derived from the analysis of target characteristics?
• What is the type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
• What command relationship involves being permanently assigned as an essential part of a military organization?
• What is the circular error for Category I TLE, measured in feet and meters?
• What is the term for tracking and reporting the location and movement of friendly forces?
• What are the four Fire Support functions?
• Which of these fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• True or False: JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just "readback correct" or "good readback".
• What is the role of permissive fire support coordination measures in military operations?
• Which key concept in targeting involves the understanding of friendly and enemy capabilities?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little forward motion?
• Final protective fires are generally within what range of meters from friendly positions?
• What is the primary goal of an indirect firing unit?
• What is the term for the support structure that aids in synchronizing and describing operational control?
• What is the purpose of the targeting process in a military context?
• What additional line of the CAS 9-line is a mandatory readback when working with NATO forces?
• What identifies objects protected from military operations under international law?
• What is the purpose of suppression in a tactical mission context?
• Which type of defensive operation focuses on denying enemy forces access to terrain?
• What is the term used for an area that both divides responsibility and has permissive and restrictive nature?
• What task is aimed at rendering an enemy force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• What is characterized by valid military targets with engagement restrictions placed by the JFC?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
• What are the two core competencies provided to Army operations by Field Artillery?
• What kind of area imposes specific restrictions on fire deliveries without coordination?
• What is the senior fire support organization assisting the MAGTF commander?
• What tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
• Which of the following is not a characteristic of organic command relationships?
• What is a tactical plan for coordinating the fire of a unit's weapons?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is imminent?
• What brevity term signifies the sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• In military operations, what is essential for ensuring coordination between land and maritime forces?
• What does the acronym CAS stand for in military operations?
• What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• What is the term for the boundary established to prevent fire effects from crossing between friendly forces?
• What is the role of the Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD) within the Army Air-Ground System?
• What area is assigned to an artillery unit for maneuvering their systems to increase survivability?
• Which of these fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft's responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly force?
• Which step is first in the CAS execution template?
• The concept of operations in fire support refers to?
• What does the 'T' in TEFACHR stand for in a situation update?
• Which component is a primary part of the targeting process in military operations?
• What actions are taken to mislead adversary decision-makers, impacting their actions or inactions to benefit a friendly mission?
• What is the process that involves detection, identification, and location of a target for effective employment of capabilities?
• What term refers to areas where any weapon system may fire without additional coordination?
• What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• During a CAS mission, what element is primarily focused on ensuring the safety of friendly forces?
• Which of the following is a requirement when conducting air support operations?
• What additional information must be provided if 'danger close' is announced during a call for fire?
• What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
• What is the outcome intended by conducting a diversion in military operations?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
• What is defined as the characterization of detected objects to support engagement decisions?
• Which unit is co-located with ground maneuver units and provides terminal attack control of CAS aircraft?
• What must you advise the aircrew when executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual?
• Which of the following is an example of restrictions in fire support planning?
• Which task entails slowing down the enemy's momentum while inflicting maximum damage without becoming decisively engaged?
• What support relationship is characterized by a unit supporting another supporting unit?
• What brevity term acknowledges the sighting of a specified reference point?
• Who is the senior field artillery commander who advises maneuver commanders on fire support integration?
• The primary role of the Fire Support Coordinator is to?
• What term best describes an operation aimed at sustaining fire on multiple targets simultaneously?
• What is primarily aimed to create disorganization in enemy operations and decision-making?
• What is the purpose of a censor zone in relation to friendly weapon systems?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
• When will the joint terminal attack controller typically state the method of attack?
• What does the term "first round fire for effect" emphasize?
• What is the appropriate maneuver area assigned by the maritime commander to fire support ships?
• What command relationship gives the authority to organize and employ forces and assign tasks?
• What does the 'H' in TEFACHR stand for?
• Which Marine Corps entity is known as the senior agency in the command and control system?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• What does the letter "P" in the memory aid FA-PARCA represent?
• The role of the Field Artillery is to suppress, neutralize, or destroy the enemy using which methods?
• What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of an NSFS call for fire?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that indicates enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What does a restrictive fire area require before fires can be conducted?
• What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
• In what scenario must a JFO communicate as "not a JTAC"?
• What does 'C' represent in the TEFACHR situation update?
• What term is used by a JTAC during a Type 1 control for weapons release clearance?
• Which term describes the immediate indirect and joint fires provided to neutralize enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired?
• What information does the 'L' in SALTR stand for in a BDA report for a CAS engagement?
• Which munitions provide terminal accuracy at submunitions dispense level less than lethal radius?
• What is one of the primary responsibilities of a JTAC during a CAS mission?
• What does DACAS stand for in the context of fire support?
• Which radar zone is designated for critical asset protection in the event of jeopardizing the mission?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Support function?
• Which aspect of tactical fire support focuses on assessing the effectiveness of fire missions after execution?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is in level, forward flight?
• In military operations, what is the main function of a fire support coordination line?
• What step in the CAS execution template involves providing details on the attack configuration?
• What term describes a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance?
• What should be done before engaging a target with air support?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft's responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is primarily responsible for scanning the objective?
• Which operation is designed primarily to create conditions favorable for further operations?
• What net is used for aircraft control during joint operations?
• Who is responsible for joint fires planning and execution?
• What is line 8 of the JFO target brief used to identify?
• What is the role of the JFO in the planning process for close air support?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?
• Which command relationship allows the provision of support for a specific mission?
• Which step involves determining the effectiveness of the strike in the CAS execution template?
• What is the effect of temporarily degrading the performance of a force below the necessary level to complete a mission?
• What type of maneuver control measure is used for the coordination of military operations?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
• What command relationship involves limited authority over forces necessary to accomplish assigned missions?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a part of combat identification?
• Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by massing what type of fire on targets?
• Which entity within the Theater Air Control System allocates resources and tasks forces?
• What serves as the link between the ASOC and tactical air control parties for aircraft coordination?
• What does the term "clear" refer to in fire support terminology?
• What term is used for actions designed to protect Army aviation assets from enemy air threats?
• Which method of attack requires that the target is tallied/captured by the aircrew?
• What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?
• What is the brevity term used in naval surface fire support (NSFS) for an ammunition remaining report?
• In which phase of a CAS mission is the situation assessed for risks to friendly forces before engaging the target?
• What brevity term means to oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• True or False: Ground forces' location must be identified by aircrews after receiving an attack aviation call for fire.
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• Which term describes the area in which friendly forces should not be engaged due to potential risk?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?
• What defines an area where fires are entirely prohibited?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is remote?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• What is the role of the specialized Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component?
• Which phase involves identifying and neutralizing enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired to achieve combat objectives?
• When is a gun-target line considered hot?
• What brevity term means to mark a target by using an infrared (IR) pointer?
• What term describes the measurement of a feature or location on Earth to determine absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• In an engagement, how should clearance to fire normally be transmitted?
• Which of the following is NOT a fire support coordination measure?
• What is a measure used to assess changes in system behavior and operational environment tied to the attainment of an objective?
• Which vehicle employment option maximizes the assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but may degrade the supported unit?
• True or False: Army Attack Aviation and SOF gunships utilize the same call for fire format.
• What is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment?
• What is the primary purpose of a gun-target line?
• Which support relationship requires a force to support another specific force?
• What is the purpose of Army operations that protect aviation assets near the forward line of own troops?
• What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?
• What is a line that delineates surface areas to facilitate coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units?
• What is the term for the exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?
• What does it mean to task organize a force for a unique mission?
• What process ensures that results of military actions are sufficient to meet command objectives?
• What measures do commanders use to define lines of responsibility in support of friendly forces?
• What type of line allows firing without additional coordination with the establishing HQ?
• What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?
• Which vehicle employment option places the Fire Support Officer (FSO) in the fire support vehicle?
• What task/effect is achieved by integrating direct and indirect fires to disrupt an enemy's formation?
• What is the final step in the CAS execution template?
• What command relationship implies that units are placed in an organization for a relatively permanent duration?
• What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but does not grant weapons release?
• Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when both the lead and wing aircraft concentrate on the objective?
• Which action is crucial during the call for fire in a CAS operation?
• Which radar zone is monitored to detect weapons before any other acquisition?
• True or False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures ensure the safety of friendly forces.
• What is the primary mission of a TACP within ground maneuver units?
• How many phases consist in the joint targeting cycle?
• What is the tactical mission task that renders enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with an operation?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target report?
• What refers to the targeting of enemy indirect fire systems and their supporting elements before they can engage friendly forces?